2015—2016学年度第一学期七年级英语期末测试卷五
（考试时间:100分钟，满分120分）
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第一卷 （共60分）
一、听力（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A) 听句子，选图片。
听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个图片中选出最佳选项。听每个句子前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，你仍有5秒钟的时间答题。（每个句子读一遍。） 1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
B) 听对话和短文，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。（每段对话或短文读两遍）
听第一段对话，回答第6～7小题。 6. What is Sandy good at? A. Volleyball. B. Tennis. C. Table tennis. 7. Who does Sandy like playing with?
A. Her friends. B. Her parents. C. Her classmates. 听第二段对话，回答第8～10小题。 8. What does the man want to buy? A. Shirts. B. T-shirts. C. Sweaters. 9. What colour does the man take at last? A. Blue and white. B. Blue and black. C. Black and white. 10. How much do they cost? A. 80 yuan. B. 160 yuan. C. 36 yuan.
听一篇短文，回答第11～15小题。 11. What’s the train number? A. T12 B. T26 C. T27
12. If you want to catch the train, you’d better get on before at Weifang Station. A. 11:20 B. 11:25 C. 11:30 13. The train reaches Beijing . A. in the morning B. in the afternoon C. in the evening 14. Which food can’t you have in the dining car? A. Dumplings. B. Hamburgers. C. Noodles. 15. Which car is the nearest to the dining car? A. No. 13 B. No. 8 C. No. 15 二、单项填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 16. My mother looks good the white dress. A. on B. of C. with D. in 17. —What’s your , Richy? —I like collecting stamps. A. work B. name C. hobby D. age 18. — your cousin Kitty good at volleyball? —Yes. She often plays it. A. Is B. Are C. Does D. Do
19. Mr. Wang is going to meet Kitty and _____ at the school gate tomorrow morning. A. I B. me C. my D. mine 20. The food in the restaurant is nice, I still like eating at home. A. and B. but C. so D. or
21. We don’t have milk at home. Could you go and buy , please? A. any; some B. some; any C. some; some D. any; any
22. Jay Zhou has many good songs. They are among young people. A. modern B. beautiful C. interesting D. popular 23. —Can you help me the leaving time of the train? —Sure, Mr. Green. A. look for B. look out C. find out D. look after 24. — do you celebrate Halloween?
—We play a game “Trick or treat” and have lots of delicious food.
Com]
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A. How B. Where C. What D. When 25. —The price of an iphone6 is more than 5000 yuan. —Yes. Good things always much. A. spend B. cost C. take D. pay 26. How many syllables (音节) does the word important have? A. two B. one C. three D. four 27. —What do we need for the coming party? —Fried chicken, bread, chocolate and drinks. A. buying B. buy C. to buy D. to buying 28. —What can I do for you? —I want to buy . A. Two kilos of potatoes and two packets of salts B. Two kilos of potatoes and two packet of salt
C. Two kiloes of potatoes and two packets of salt
D. Two kilos of potatoes and two packets of salt 29. —May I come in?
—Come in, please. The door . A. is open B. opens C. is opened D. is opening 30. —Wow, your dress is so pretty! — . A. Yes, it is. B. Thank you. C. Your dress is pretty, too. D. No, thanks. 三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后所给各题的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
We go shopping almost every day. We have 31 choices (选择) of the places to buy things. Supermarket is the 32 place for you. We have a good time 33 things at the supermarket.
Firstly, you can buy all you want at the supermarket at a 34 price. You may spend much more money in the big store buying the 35 things.
Secondly, you can decide 36 to buy all by yourself at the supermarket. And you 37 need to talk much with the shop assistant there.
38 , there are more choices of things to buy at the supermarket. You can buy many things for a week’s use at a time. It 39 us much money and time.
In a word, it is 40 to buy things at a supermarket than at a big store. 31. A. many B. much C. more D. little 32. A. wrong B. right C. bad D. funny 33. A. bringing B. doing C. buying D. selling 34. A. large B. small C. high D. low 35. A. same B. different C. good D. bad 36. A. how B. what C. where D. when
37. A. can B. may C. don’t D. will
38. A. Secondly B. Firstly C. Fourthly D. Thirdly 39. A. saves B. gives C. takes D. costs 40. A. good B. better C. bad D. cheap 四、阅读理解（共10小题, 每小题2分，满分20分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项。
(A)
LOST AND FOUND
Lost:
I lost my keys in the school library. There is also a beautiful
lele keyring. I must find it. Call me at 5578-3356.
Jack
Found:
A red schoolbag is in Classroom 7A. An English book, a notebook and a pencil box are in it. E-mail: Amy2014@163.com.
Amy
Found： Daniel, Is this your basketball? Please come to the
playground after class. Nick
Lost:
My pencil box. A blue pen, two green pencils and a purple
ruler are in it. My phone number is 5548-4439.
Tina
41. There is no in the pencil box. A. pen B. ruler C. pencil D. eraser 42. Which is TRUE?
A. Tina’s ruler is green with purple around. B. You can e-mail Amy to find your schoolbag. C. Daniel found a basketball in the playground. D. You can call 5548-4439 to get the keys back.
(B)
In Thailand, there are many elephants. They are very useful. They can carry heavy things so they can help people do a lot of hard work. And they are very clever. They can act and dance. Sometimes they can play with people. Many people fly to Thailand to have fun with the elephants. It’s very interesting.
But do you know there is a festival for the elephants in Thailand? It is called Elephant Day. It comes at the third weekend of November. On that day, the elephants don’t work or act. They can have a good rest. People give them much good food like fruit and vegetables. People also have some activities for them. On that day, the elephants can wear colorful clothes and eat nice food. They
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enjoy themselves a lot then. 43. When is the Elephant Day?
A. On the third Friday of February. B. On the fourth Thursday of January. C. At the third weekend of November. D. At the second weekend of December. 44. What can elephants do in Thailand? A. Sing songs. B. Carry heavy things. C. Fly in the sky. D. Cook breakfast. 45. Why do people have the festival for elephants in Thailand? A. Because people in Thailand don’t like elephants. B. Because there are only some elephants in Thailand. C. Because people want the elephants to have a good rest. D. Because many people fly to Thailand to see the elephants.
(C)
How much sleep do we need? We are all different. Some people need only three hours of sleep a night. Others need ten hours of sleep a night. Most Americans sleep about seven to eight hours a night. After the age of fifty, the sleeping time may go down to 6.5 hours a night.
Most people have a bad night when they can’t fall asleep. The name of this problem is called insomnia.
This isn’t a new problem. Many famous people in history had insomnia, too. Some of these people had special ideas to make them sleep.
Benjamin Franklin, the famous inventor, had four beds. He moved (移动) from one to another to fall asleep. King Louis XIV of France had four hundred and thirteen beds and hoped to fall asleep in one of them. Mark Twain, the famous American writer, had a different way. He lay on his side across the end of his bed.
46. After the age of fifty, the sleeping hours may be a night. A. 3 hours B. 7or 8 hours C. 10 hours D. 6.5 hours 47. What does the word “insomnia” mean in Paragraph 2? A. 酣睡 B. 糟糕的夜晚 C. 失眠症 D. 难题 48. How did Benjamin Franklin sleep at night? A. He slept in a special and famous way.
B. He lay on his side across the end of the bed.
C. He slept in one of his four hundred and thirteen beds. D. He moved from one to another of his beds to fall asleep.
49. Why did King Louis XIV of France have more than four hundred beds? A. Because he hoped to fall asleep. B. Because he was a King. C. Because he had a lot of money. D. Because he was a famous inventor. 50. Mark Twain was ______. A. a king B. an American C. a French man D. an inventor
第二卷 （共60分）
五、基础语言知识（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A）根据首字母、中文提示或音标，写出句中所缺单词，使句子意思完整正确。 51. —Do you like sports, Daniel?
—Yes, I’m in the school football ______________ (队).
52. —______________ (哪一个) of the subjects do you like best? —I like Geography best because I like travelling.
53. The dumplings ______________ (尝起来) good. Do you want to have some?
54. —December 13th is a ______________ (特殊的) day for Nanjing. —Yes, we mustn’t forget the history.
55. —Do you have f ______________ in Spring Festival? —Yes, we always have a great time.
56. Lucy and I are in the same class. We are c______________.
57. Look! The coat is white. It m______________ your black trousers. 58. Eddie, you never do exercise. You are so l______________.
59. On the Open Day, our parents have a meeting in the hall ______________ /fɜ:st/. 60. The scarf is made of ______________ /sIlk/ and it’s very soft.
B）根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空。 61. —Daddy, what is Mum doing?
—She ______________ (sit) in the chair. She is too tired after a day’s hard work. 62. Many children are ______________ (interest) in computer games. 63. Liu Xiang practises ______________ (run) very hard every day. 64. Boys and girls, ______________ (not be) late for school again.
65. Mary plans ______________ (play) volleyball twice a week in the winter holiday. 六、句型（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A）句型转换。（每小题1分，满分5分）
66. There are some apples and bread on the table. (改为否定句)
There ___________ ___________ apples or bread on the table. 67. It takes me two hours to make the pumpkin lantern. (同义句转换) I ___________ two hours ___________ the pumpkin lantern.
68. We go to the Reading Club three times a week. (对划线部分提问) ___________ ___________ do you go to the Reading Club?
69. My mother likes shopping in Star Shopping Mall at weekends. (改为一般疑问句)
___________ your mother ___________ shopping in Star Shopping Mall at weekdays? 70. Mary often flies kites in the park. (用now替换often改写句子) Mary ___________ ___________ kites in the park now. B）连词成句，注意大小写及标点符号。（每小题1分，满分4分） 71. is, our playground, the classrooms, in front of (.)
72. often, do, by bus, go to school, you (?)
73. gives me, lunch, playing basketball, energy for (.)
74. most, need books, the children, in poor areas (.)
C）根据汉语意思,用英语完成下列句子, 每空词数不限。（每小题1分，满分6分） ．．．．．．75. 汤姆，在学校你最喜欢的科目是什么？
Tom, subject at school? 76. 让我领你们参观我们的图书馆吧。
Let me our library. 77. 你们每天的睡眠不足八小时吗？
Do you sleep eight hours every day? 78. 每年万圣节，温蒂总是装扮成老虎。
Wendy always a tiger at Halloween every year.
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79. 你认为我们的时装秀怎么样？
our fashion show? 80. 购物中心是个会见朋友的好地方。
The mall is a good place . 七、任务阅读（每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容在表格中的空格里填入一个最恰当的单词。每空一词。 Eating habits are different in different countries. The Chinese have a saying “Eat good things for breakfast, eat a big meal for lunch, but eat less at dinner.” Many people in the USA agree that one starts a day with a good breakfast, but their ideas about lunch and dinner are different.
Most people in America only give themselves a short time to have their lunch, so they eat a small lunch. After work, they can have more time to eat a big dinner. Also a quiet dinner at home with all the family talking about their day is a way to take a good rest after a long, hard day of work.
Eating at restaurants is also different. In China, very often you can hear people talking and laughing loudly, and they are just having a good time. In America it is not like this. They usually eat a good meal far away from the noisy places. If they are making some noise, other people in the restaurants will look at them angrily, even the manager of the restaurants will ask them to be quiet.
Different eating habits in different countries People At home At 81 九、书面表达（满分20分）
根据提示，以My e-friend为题,用英语写一篇短文介绍您的笔友。 要 点：
1.Millie, 13岁, 来自英国，喜欢画画，听音乐，擅长历史，并经常帮助同学； 2.喜欢穿粉色或紫色衣服，看起来时尚又漂亮； 3.经常吃汉堡和糖果，很少运动；
4.你认为她的生活方式怎么样，并提出1-2条建议。 注 意：
1. 词数60左右。短文的开头已为你写好，不计入总词数；
2. 短文须包括所有要点，不要逐词翻译，可适当发挥，使短文连贯、通顺。
My e-friend
I have an e-friend. Her name is Millie. __________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ Chinese They sometimes talk and laugh
They have a good breakfast and 83 when they are eating. They eat a big lunch. But they eat 82 will show how happy they are if at supper. they do like this. They start the day with a good They enjoy their dinner in a quiet
breakfast, too. But they never place and talk softly at dinner. If have their lunch for a 84 Americans someone 85 some noise, time. They like a big dinner at others in the restaurants will feel home, talking about their day after unhappy. work. 八、阅读短文，根据首字母填空。（每小题1分，满分5分） Teenagers are very busy now and often forget to think about their diets and exercise. The truth is, healthy eating, along with regular exercise, is the only way to k 86 fit.
During your teenage years, it is important to give your body the energy it needs. Teenage girls need about 2,200 calories a day and boys need a bit m 87 . Doctors suggest (建议) 2,800 calories for boys. 50% of your calories should come from rice, bread, vegetables and fruit. You also need enough water, six to eight glasses a day. D 88 enough water will improve your skin and give you healthy hair.
Doing exercise is something that can help make you look good, feel good and be healthy. Scientists suggest that teenagers spend at least 30 m 89 exercising five times a week.
When you exercise, you can feel happy. It can even help you s 90 better at night and let you pay more attention when you study.
___________
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2015—2016学年度第一学期七年级英语期末测试卷五听力原稿
2015—2016学年度第一学期七年级英语期末测试卷五答案
第一卷(50分)
一、听力：（每小题1分，满分15分） 1-5. BAABC 6-10. ABACB 11-15. BACBA 二、单项填空（每小题1分，满分15分） 16-20. DCABB 21-25. ADCAB 26-30. CCDAB 三、完形填空（每小题1分，满分10分） 31-35 ABCDA 36-40 BCDAB
四、阅读理解（每小题1分，满分10分） 41-45 DBCBC 46-50 DCDAB
A) 听句子，选图片。
听下面5个句子，从所给的A、B、C三个图片中选出最佳选项。听每个句子前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，你仍有5秒钟的时间答题。（每个句子读一遍） 1. It’s a quarter past six. It’s time to get up.
2. The twins came to Nanjing on Tuesday, 1st June, 2004. 3. Cats like fish best.
4. The price of the potatoes is 1.5 yuan.
5. He wants to be a teacher when he grows up.
B) 听对话和短文，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。（每段对话或短文读两遍）
听第一段对话，回答6～7小题。 W: Tom, are you good at playing tennis?
M: Yes, I often play with my classmates on Saturday and Sunday. Are you good at playing tennis, Sandy?
W: No, I’m not very good at it, but I play volleyball very well. I often practice it with my parents. M: I’m sure you will play tennis very well too if you try your best. W: Thank you!
听第二段对话，回答第8～10小题。 W: Good morning! Can I help you?
M: I’d like to buy two shirts. How much are these shirts? W: They are eighty yuan each.
M: I like a blue one and a white one . Can I try them on? W: Sure.
M: The white one fits me well, but the blue one is not big enough. Do you have a large size? W: Just a minute. Sorry, we don’t. What about the black one? M: OK. The white one and the black one. I’ll take them. 听一篇短文，回答第11～15小题。 Ladies and gentlemen:
Welcome to Train T26! It starts at 11:20, from Weifang to Beijing, the capital of China. It will take us 8 hours and 28 minutes. We’ll arrive in Beijing at 7:48 this evening.
We offer noodles, rice, dumplings, dishes and different kinds of drinks for lunch in the dining car. You can go and enjoy your lunch there. The dining car is No.12 in the middle of the train. We wish all of you a pleasant trip. Thank you!
第二卷(50分)
五、基础语言知识（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A）根据首字母、中文提示或音标，写出句中所缺单词，使句子意思完整正确。 51. team 52. Which 53. taste 54. special 55. fun 56. classmates 57. matches 58. lazy 59. first 60. silk B）根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空。 61. is sitting 62. interested 63. running 64. don’t be 65. to play 六、句型（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A） 句型转换。（每小题1分，满分5分）
66. aren’t any 67. spend; making 68. How often 69. Does; like 70. is flying B）连词成句，注意大小写及标点符号。（每小题1分，满分4分） 71. Our playground is in front of the classrooms. 72. Do you often go to school by bus? 73. Lunch gives me energy for playing basketball. 74. The children in poor areas need books most.
C）根据汉语意思,用英语完成下列句子, 每空词数不限。（每小题1分，满分6分） ．．．．．．75. what’s your favourite 76. show you around 77. less than 78. dresses up as 79. What do you think of/How do you like 80. to meet friends
七、任务阅读（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 81. restaurants 82.less 83. loudly 84. long 85. makes 八、阅读短文，根据首字母填空。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 86. keep 87. more 88. Drinking 89. minutes 90. sleep 书面表达（满分10分）
I have an e-friend. Her name is Millie. She is from the UK. She is 13 years old. She has many hobbies. She likes listening to music and drawing. She is good at all her lessons at school. She enjoys history very much. She is helpful and often helps her classmates with their lessons.
She likes wearing pink or purple clothes. She looks modern and beautiful in them. She often eats hamburgers and sweets. She seldom does sports. Her lifestyle is not healthy. I think she should eat more fruit and vegetables and exercise more.
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